1 Reply Latest reply: May 10, 2010 8:31 AM by ChrisJ4203
Steve Herman1 Level 4 Level 4 (2,545 points)
The location where I live is about to implement a second area code that overlays the same area as my current area code. As a result we will have to begin including the appropriate area code on all local calls.

Assuming I've included area codes in my contact information, will iPhone dial it even if it matches the area code assigned to my phone? I was thinking the phone omitted the area code when dialing if it matched your phone's area code (and you were located in your home area) but I could be totally wrong about that.

Or is there perhaps a setting I might need to change to make this work?

Thanks,
Steve

20" iMac G5, Mac OS X (10.5.8)
  • ChrisJ4203 Level 8 Level 8 (40,410 points)
    They did the same thing in my area some time back. Even calling long distance in the past did not require the 1 to be added to the number, you could just dial the area code and the number. One of the nice things about using the cell phone. However, since the amount of overlays has increased, from home, I have to dial 1 + area code + number, to call my next door neighbor!

    With my iPhone, I have the area code entered in all of my numbers in the contacts, because Outlook adds them automatically. If I use the dial pad, I will get an error if I fail to enter the area code, but if I'm thinking when I use the dial pad and enter area code + number, it works, so obviously the iPhone is dialing all of the digits. This did not require any changes to any settings.