Hello
Well, let me explain the issue with some concrete examples.
E.g. 1. When I input 23:30 in B2 and 02:30 in C2, both on date 2015-08-02, which will result –
B2 2015-08-02 23:30:00 (date-time value, only showing time in cell by format)
C2 2015-08-02 02:30:00 (date-time value, only showing time in cell by format)
and Ian's formula (for B > C) will yield C2 - B2 + 1d = 3:00, which is fine, and now change C2 to 02:40 (by re-entering 02:40) on date 2015-08-04, which will result –
B2 2015-08-02 23:30:00 (date-time value, only showing time in cell by format)
C2 2015-08-04 02:40:00 (date-time value, only showing time in cell by format)
and Ian's formula (for B <= C) will yield C2 - B2 = 27:10, which is wrong.
E.g. 2. When I input 8:00 in B3 and 10:00 in C3, both on date 2015-08-05, which will result –
B3 2015-08-05 08:00:00 (date-time value, only showing time in cell by format)
C3 2015-08-05 10:00:00 (date-time value, only showing time in cell by format)
and Ian's formula (for B <= C) will yield C3 - B3 = 2:00, which is fine, and now change B3 to 07:50 (by re-entering 07:50) on date 2015-08-07, which will result –
B3 2015-08-07 07:50:00 (date-time value, only showing time in cell by format)
C3 2015-08-05 10:00:00 (date-time value, only showing time in cell by format)
and Ian's formula (for B > C) will yield C3 - B3 + 1d = -21:50, which is wrong.
These wrong results come from the wrong assumption that quasi time-only value contains meaningful date, whether in case B <= C or B > C.
This is not theoretical but practical concern. And in my opinion, Ian's formula is illogical and inconsistent as explained in my previous post and thus misleading and prone to error.
Regards,
H